GTU Energy Conversion and Management / GTU ECM QUIZ

Subject Name: (ECM) Energy Conversion and Management, Subject Code: 2181916 Quiz

Subject Name: (ECM) Energy Conversion and Management, Subject Code: 2181916 Quiz

 

1. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
   1.   Kinetic energy
   2.   Electrostatic
   3.   Potential
   4.   Magnetic
2. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called
   1.   Kinetic energy
   2.   Chemical energy
   3.   Potential energy
   4.   Magnetic energy
3. Active power consumption of motive drives AC 3 phase can be determined by using one
   of the following relations.
   1.   √3 x V x I
   2.   √3 x V2 x I x cosϕ
   3.   √3 x V x I2 x Cosϕ
   4.   √3 x V x I x Cosϕ
4. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of electrical
   energy it would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)
   1.   low grade
   2.   extra ordinary grade
   3.   high grade
   4.   none of the above
5. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
   1.   Apparent power
   2.   Active power
   3.   Reactive Power
   4.   None of the above
6. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)
   1.   Apparent power & Active power
   2.   Active power & Reactive power
   3.   Active Power & Apparent powe
   4.   Apparent power & Reactive power
7. kVA is also called as
   1.   reactive power
   2.   apparent power
   3.   active power
   4.   captive power
8. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is
   1.   50 kWh
   2.   160 kWh
   3.   40 kWh
   4.   2000 kWh
9. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as
   1.   Load factor
   2.   Demand factor
   3.   Contract demand
   4.   none of the above
10. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating power
    factor of the motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is
    1.   2.3 kW
    2.   3.58 kW
    3.   2.07 kW
    4.   2.70 kW
11. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 O
    C is
    termed as
    1.   Specific heat
    2.   Heat capacity
    3.   One Calorie
    4.   Sensible heat
12. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
    1.   input kW to the motor
    2.   output kW of the motor
    3.   minimum input kW to the motor
    4.   maximum input kW to the motor
13. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor
    state without change of temperature is termed as
    1.   Latent heat of fusion
    2.   Latent heat of vaporization
    3.   Heat capacity
    4.   Sensible heat
14. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it
    gives out the heat of
    1.   580 kCa
    2.   540 kCal
    3.   620 kCal
    4.   2260 kCal
15. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed
    below.
    1.   Lead
    2.   Mercury
    3.   Water
    4.   Alcohol
16. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
    1.   decreases with decreasing temperature
    2.   increases with increasing temperature
    3.   decreases with increasing temperature
    4.   None of the above
17. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends
    upon the following.
    1.   sensible heat added
    2.   latent heat of fusion
    3.   specific heat of the substance
    4.   heat capacity
18. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.
    1.   joule /kg °C
    2.   kg/cm2
    3.   kcal/m3
    4.   kcal/cm2
19. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is
    termed as -----
    1.   condensation
    2.   Evaporation
    3.   Fusion
    4.   Phase change
20. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler
    is termed as -----
    1.   Extraction
    2.   Cogeneration
    3.   Both a & b
    4.   Neither a nor b
21. The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the:
    1.   input-output
    2.   conversion efficiency
    3.   losses
    4.   all the above
22. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will
    not be considered on the input side?
    1.   Chemicals
    2.   Water/air
    3.   Recycle
    4.   By product
23. In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as
    1.   input to process
    2.   output to process
    3.   both (a) and (b)
    4.   none of them
24. Losses in material and energy balance is considered as
    1.   inputs
    2.   outputs
    3.   both (a) and (b)
    4.   none of the above
25. Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___.
    1.   energy input
    2.   energy output
    3.   energy balance
    4.   all the above
26. In a chemical process of two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200kg) is used as reactants. If
    conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then calculate the weight of
    the product formed.
    1.   150 kg
    2.   200 kg
    3.   250 kg
    4.   400 kg
27. In a furnace, the lower the exhaust temperature ____ is the furnace efficiency.
    1.   lower
    2.   moderate
    3.   higher
    4.   none of above
28. Which of the following is the predominant loss in a furnace oil fired boiler?
    1.   dry flue gas losses
    2.   heat loss due to moisture in air
    3.   heat loss due to radiation and convection
    4.   heat loss due to moisture in fuel
29. In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient
    temperature of 30 ° C considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C.
    What is the energy content in one kg of material after heating?
    1.   150 kCal
    2.   250 kCal
    3.   350 kCal
    4.   100 kCal
30. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product
    obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
    1.   20
    2.   25
    3.   35
    4.   40
31. In an utility steam boiler, heat loss due to radiation normally is in the range of
    1.   10%
    2.   14%
    3.   1%
    4.   8%
32. Energy supplied by combustion of fuel is equal to
    1.   mass of fuel consumed x its calorific value
    2.   mass of fuel consumed x its density
    3.   mass of fuel consumed x its specific heat
    4.   mass of fuel consumed x its heat
       capacity
33. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1000 kg. The ash content in the
    coal is 3%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
    
    1.   50 kg
    2.   300 kg
    3.   33 kg
    4.   720 kg
34. Sankey diagram represents an entire input and output energy flow. State True or
    False?
    1.   True
    2.   False
35. Material and energy balance will identify areas to concentrate for energy
    conservation.
    1.   True
    2.   False
36. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material
    is 200 kg. Calculate the final weight of the product.
    1.   100
    2.   120
    3.   130
    4.   114.3
37. Energy supplied by electricity, Q in kCal is equal to _____ .
    1.   kWh x 8.6
    2.   kWh x 86
    3.   kWh x 860
    4.   none
38. Which one is a secondary form of energy?
    1.   Furnace oil
    2.   natural gas
    3.   electricity
    4.   coal
39. In material and energy balance, cycle time play an important role.
    1.   True
    2.   False
40. Sankey diagram is an useful tool to represent ____.
    1.   financial strength of the company
    2.   management philosophy
    3.   input and output energy flow
    4.   human resource strength of the company
41. The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
    1.   Positive forces only
    2.   negative forces only
    3.   Both negative and Positive forces
    4.   no forces
42. From the combination below, which is not a key element of a successful energy
    management program?
    1.   Technical ability
    2.   monitoring system & a strategy plan
    3.   Security of plant
    4.   top management support
43. In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall
    under positive force?
    1.   high price of energy
    2.   energy efficient technology available
    3.   top management commitment
    4.   lack of awareness
44. The positive force field analysis has one of the following. Identify?
    1.   Force field itself
    2.   Corporate energy philosophy
    3.   Energy policy itself
    4.   None of the above
45. The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written declaration of
    commitment. This is called
    1.   Company policy
    2.   Management policy
    3.   Energy policy
    4.   Energy efficiency policy
46. Budgets for energy use within each activity centre in an organization should be
    treated separately like labour, raw material etc. State
    1.   True
    2.   False
47. The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which motivates
    plant to take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field
    analysis towards achievement of goal. State
    1.   True
    2.   False
48. In energy action planning, a formal declaration of energy policy is adopted to
    1.   Benefit BEE only
    2.   Complete statutory requirement
    3.   Both (a) & (b) above
    4.   achieve company’s best interests
49. “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be
    developed as part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good
    for the company’s
    1.   Safety
    2.   Accountability
    3.   Reliability
    4.   Stability
50. The location of energy manger in a large organisation could be
    1.   marketing division
    2.   Plant maintenance unit
    3.   Corporate Management Services Department
    4.   Finance division
51. Publishing a formal statement of energy policy that can be used to define company
    activities in energy matters is the role of -----------------
    1.   top management
    2.   middle management
    3.   energy auditor
    4.   energy manager
52. The energy manager has to perform the function of ____.
    1) Organizer 2) Planner 3) Decision Maker 4) Team leader
    1.   1,2 & 3
    2.   1 & 2 only
    3.   1,2 & 4
    4.   All the four above
53. Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager as per
    1.   Energy Conservation Act 2003
    2.   Energy Conservation Act 2004
    3.   Energy Conservation Act 2002
    4.   Energy Conservation Act 2001
54. “Publicizing the energy conservation program” includes the following
    1.   Signs and posters displayed in the factory or office
    2.   Progress charts showing targets and achievements
    3.   Energy conservation stickers on light switches and thermostats
    4.   All the above
55. In energy action planning, Monitoring and targeting is only a part of the comprehensive
    information systems. State
    1.   True
    2.   False
56. “A public expression of organisation's commitment to energy conservation and
    environmental protection” is called as
    1.   Company policy
    2.   Energy policy
    3.   Management philosophy
    4.   Corporate plan
57. Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action on
    recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
    1.   BEE and state level agency once a year
    2.   BEE and state level agency twice year
    3.   BEE only
    4.   State level designated agency only
58. “Training includes the complex technical issues that relate to energy efficient
    technologies”. This is useful as part of
    1.   Energy action planning
    2.   Training division commitment
    3.   Management philosophy
    4.   None of above
59. Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced energy
    consumption?
    1.   tax on energy consumption
    2.   competing corporate priorities
    3.   Insufficient financial resources to fund
    4.   Absence of corporate energy policy
60. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts with…
    1.   energy audit
    2.   training
    3.   seminar
    4.   none of the above